The nurse is teaching the mother regarding treatment for enterobiasis. Which instruction should be given regarding the medication?
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Solution
The entire family should be treated.
Enterobiasis, or pinworms, is treated with Vermox (mebendazole) or Antiminth (pyrantel pamoate). The entire family should be treated to ensure that no eggs remain. Because a single treatment is usually sufficient, there is usually good compliance. The family should then be tested again in 2 weeks to ensure that no eggs remain.
The 5-year-old is being tested for enterobiasis (pinworms). To collect a specimen for assessment of pinworms, the nurse should teach the mother to:
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Solution
Examine the perianal area with a flashlight 2 or 3 hours after the child is asleep
Infection with pinworms begins when the eggs are ingested or inhaled. The eggs hatch in the upper intestine and mature in 2–8 weeks. The females then mate and migrate out the anus, where they lay up to 17,000 eggs. This causes intense itching. The mother should be told to use a flashlight to examine the rectal area about 2–3 hours after the child is asleep. Placing clear tape on a tongue blade will allow the eggs to adhere to the tape. The specimen should then be brought in to be evaluated.
Options B, C, and D: There is no need to scrape the skin, collect a stool specimen, or bring a sample of hair.
The client is having electroconvulsive therapy for treatment of severe depression. Which of the following indicates that the client’s ECT has been effective?
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Solution
The client has a grand mal seizure.
During ECT, the client will have a grand mal seizure. This indicates completion of the electroconvulsive therapy.
Options A, B, and C do not indicate that the ECT has been effective.
The nurse is observing several healthcare workers providing care. Which action by the healthcare worker indicates a need for further teaching?
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Solution
The nurse wears gloves to take the client’s vital signs.
It is not necessary to wear gloves to take the vital signs of the client. If the client has active infection with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, gloves should be worn.
Options A, B, and C: The health care workers indicate knowledge of infection control by their actions.
The client is having an arteriogram. During the procedure, the client tells the nurse, “I’m feeling really hot.” Which response would be best?
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Solution
“That feeling of warmth is normal when the dye is injected.”
It is normal for the client to have a warm sensation when dye is injected.
Options A, C, and D indicate that the nurse believes that the hot feeling is abnormal, so they are incorrect.
A 32-year-old mother of three is brought to the clinic. Her pulse is 52, there is a weight gain of 30 pounds in 4 months, and the client is wearing two sweaters. The client is diagnosed with hypothyroidism. Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority?
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Solution
The decrease in pulse can affect the cardiac output and lead to shock, which would take precedence over the other choices.
A client had a total thyroidectomy yesterday. The client is complaining of tingling around the mouth and in the fingers and toes. What would the nurse’s next action be?
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Solution
The parathyroid glands are responsible for calcium production and can be damaged during a thyroidectomy. The tingling is due to low calcium levels.
Option A: The crash cart would be needed in respiratory distress but would not be the next action to take.
Options C and D: Hypertension occurs in thyroid storm and the drainage would occur in hemorrhage.
A client with Addison’s disease has been admitted with a history of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. The client is receiving IV glucocorticoids (Solu-Medrol). Which of the following interventions would the nurse implement?
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Solution
IV glucocorticoids raise the glucose levels and often require coverage with insulin.
Options B, C, and D: Intake/output measurements is not necessary at this time, sodium and potassium levels would be monitored when the client is receiving mineralocorticoids, and daily weights is unnecessary.
A client has had a unilateral adrenalectomy to remove a tumor. To prevent complications, the most important measurement in the immediate postoperative period for the nurse to take is:
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Solution
Blood pressure is the best indicator of cardiovascular collapse in the client who has had an adrenal gland removed. The remaining gland might have been suppressed due to the tumor activity. Temperature would be an indicator of infection,
Options B, C, and D: Temperature would be an indicator of infection, decreased output would be a clinical manifestation but would take longer to occur than blood pressure changes, and specific gravity changes occur with other disorders.
A client with hemophilia has a nosebleed. Which nursing action is most appropriate to control the bleeding?
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Solution
The client should be positioned upright and leaning forward, to prevent aspiration of blood.
Options A, B, and D: Direct pressure to the nose stops the bleeding, and ice packs should be applied directly to the nose as well. If a pack is necessary, the nares are loosely packed.