The primary purpose of a platelet count is to evaluate the:
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Solution
Option A: Platelets are disk-shaped cells that are essential for blood coagulation. A platelet count determines the number of thrombocytes in blood available for promoting hemostasis and assisting with blood coagulation after injury.
Option B: It also is used to evaluate the patient’s potential for bleeding; however, this is not its primary purpose. The normal count ranges from 150,000 to 350,000/mm3. A count of 100,000/mm3 or less indicates a potential for bleeding; count of less than 20,000/mm3 is associated with spontaneous bleeding.
Which of the following blood tests should be performed before a blood transfusion?
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Solution
Option B: Before a blood transfusion is performed, the blood of the donor and recipient must be checked for compatibility. This is done by blood typing (a test that determines a person’s blood type) and cross-matching (a procedure that determines the compatibility of the donor’s and recipient’s blood after the blood types has been matched). If the blood specimens are incompatible, hemolysis and antigen-antibody reactions will occur.
All of the following measures are recommended to prevent pressure ulcers except:
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Solution
Option A: Nurses and other healthcare professionals previously believed that massaging a reddened area with lotion would promote venous return and reduce edema to the area. However, research has shown that massage only increases the likelihood of cellular ischemia and necrosis to the area.
Which of the following nursing interventions is considered the most effective form or universal precautions?
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Solution
Option B: According to the Centers for Disease Control (CDC), blood-to-blood contact occurs most commonly when a health care worker attempts to cap a used needle.
Option A: Therefore, used needles should never be recapped; instead they should be inserted in a specially designed puncture resistant, labeled container.
Option C: Wearing gloves is not always necessary when administering an I.M. injection.
Option D: Enteric precautions prevent the transfer of pathogens via feces.
When removing a contaminated gown, the nurse should be careful that the first thing she touches is the:
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Solution
Option A: The back of the gown is considered clean, the front is contaminated. So, after removing gloves and washing hands, the nurse should untie the back of the gown; slowly move backward away from the gown, holding the inside of the gown and keeping the edges off the floor; turn and fold the gown inside out; discard it in a contaminated linen container; then wash her hands again.
All of the following statement are true about donning sterile gloves except:
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Solution
Option D: The inside of the glove is always considered to be clean, but not sterile.
A natural body defense that plays an active role in preventing infection is:
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Solution
Option B: Hair on or within body areas, such as the nose, traps and holds particles that contain microorganisms.
Options A and C: Yawning and hiccupping do not prevent microorganisms from entering or leaving the body.
Option D: Rapid eye movement marks the stage of sleep during which dreaming occurs.
Which of the following constitutes a break in sterile technique while preparing a sterile field for a dressing change?
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Solution
Option C: The edges of a sterile field are considered contaminated. When sterile items are allowed to come in contact with the edges of the field, the sterile items also become contaminated.
Sterile technique is used whenever:
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Solution
Option C: All invasive procedures, including surgery, catheter insertion, and administration of parenteral therapy, require sterile technique to maintain a sterile environment. All equipment must be sterile, and the nurse and the physician must wear sterile gloves and maintain surgical asepsis. In the operating room, the nurse and physician are required to wear sterile gowns, gloves, masks, hair covers, and shoe covers for all invasive procedures.
Option A: Strict isolation requires the use of clean gloves, masks, gowns and equipment to prevent the transmission of highly communicable diseases by contact or by airborne routes.
Option B: Terminal disinfection is the disinfection of all contaminated supplies and equipment after a patient has been discharged to prepare them for reuse by another patient.
Option D: The purpose of protective (reverse)isolation is to prevent a person with seriously impaired resistance from coming into contact who potentially pathogenic organisms.
Which of the following procedures always requires surgical asepsis?
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Solution
Option B: The urinary system is normally free of microorganisms except at the urinary meatus. Any procedure that involves entering this system must use surgically aseptic measures to maintain a bacteria-free state.